i think we're not on the same pagesince the topic is about buying a realty and after reading the post below i quickly assumed it was about defaults in payment of installments. my bad
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i read the other thread and i'm not also aware of that practice. the question that immediately pops to my head is: if the buyer paid for the unit in full, why does he have to return it after xx years?The more apt statute imo is RA 4726. the 50 year period is mentioned under section 8 (c).




since the topic is about buying a realty and after reading the post below i quickly assumed it was about defaults in payment of installments. my bad 
The more apt statute imo is
so, in short, it can only be reverted if and only if, the contract of sale is canceled via defaults on payments etc?
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